orthography implies: a word, yet diacritics implies letters, and ιota is the perfect example of an unnecessary diacritical misapplication, notably observed in a language that observes orthography: which is non-existent in english: which is still to untangle from the latin graphemes ae & oe; english hasn't untangled itself from the grapheme modus operandi: which is why LL TT NN OO GG PP: pull fattening manner pool bigger popping - invite the stutter!
- a word is worth is its orthography - yet there is absolutely no need to indicate the letters I & J with a lower-case diacritical branding: because suddenly one of the letters disappears!
i.e. with i = ι, j = ī
a letter disappears! and people thought that quantum physics was bewildering... because there is no ****** reason to apply diacritical marking on a phonetic mark that's already a "solipsistic" unit... a saying revealed by:
ιota = ιgrek in the north... | = . because what is 1 squared? 1... what's 1 cubed? 1. what's 1 to the power of 10? 1.
- only yesterday i was in a supermarket and met a fellow traveller: a distant kin, whom i might have shared a native conversation with... point being: i could spot a language behind the "faςade" of accent... call that quasi s? a word sprang to mind - ziomek, a slang among immigrants denoting: a fellow of shared roots. yet that morphed into an: orthographic anomaly - why does the i and j need diacritical marks when there are exceptions to be made: otherwise? you know how easily you can write *ziomek differently while still retaining the word and it's meaning? źomek: because the diacritical mark **** of ιota is just that... the unholy umlaut of i & j... | and . are already synonymous: they're not inter-sectional akin to the illiterate signature of X... why was it so hard to make a mark by a mere I... instead marking a count to 10? ah... in Kantian terms: 0 = negation... well: the 1 is to be denied.